Philosophy of Science 5

in the reading “on the notion of Cause, with Applications to the Free-Will Problem”, Russell makes the famous claim “The law of causality, I believe, like much that passes muster among philosophers, is a relic of a bygone age, surviving, like the monarchy, only because it is erroneously supposed to do no harm”.  In what ways might Lewis’s analysis of casual dependence be regarded as telling against Russell’s verdict? As telling for it?

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